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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 18.06.2025 02:35

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

Where can Ukrainians go if they cannot have shelter and heating this winter?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Does the Lil Wayne song ‘Lollipop’ refers to a Lollipop sweet or a metaphor?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why do women stubbornly refuse to let men lead, even though they are attracted to the man, and the man both loves and desires them? Why do they get angry and blame the man when he gets fed up and walks away, when it's entirely their own fault?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.